The question is, however, how was it re-introduced? Did Napoleon do it unilaterally, or, was it done by committee, as the Code Civile was? Seems to me that you are ready to blame Napoleon for anything that you consider 'barbaric' but are unwilling to actually take a look at the process.
What is considered brutal now, was not considered brutal then. For example, in the US the definition of 'cruel and unusual punishment' has changed over the years. Keeping issues in context of the period is important when studying historical periods.